In one of your articles you state that God has been here on the earth and appeared to men. Yet, the Bible plainly states that no man can see God and live. Are you not calling God a liar?

No, we are not calling God a liar. When God told Moses that “no man shall see Me, and live” (Exodus 33:20), He was saying that humans cannot see God for all that He is. It is simply not possible. However, God is fully capable of appearing in a form that can be seen by humans. In fact, God made many appearances in Old Testament times. Let’s consider just one of them:

“Then Moses went up, also Aaron, Nadab, and Abihu, and seventy of the elders of Israel, and they saw the God of Israel. And there was under His feet as it were a paved work of sapphire stone, and it was like the very heavens in its clarity. But on the nobles of the children of Israel He did not lay His hand. So they saw God, and they ate and drank” (Exodus 24:9–11).

Now, did the nobles of Israel see God, or not? This passage says they did! Of course, we know from other scriptures that they could not have seen God in His full glory, but the text plainly says that they saw God! He presented Himself to them in a form they could see.

The appearances of God in the Old Testament are called Theophanies. The term means “appearances of God.” The article you refer to takes the position that the divine Person who appears repeatedly as the “Angel of the Lord” in the Old Testament is none other than the preincarnate Christ, who is in very nature God.

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Does Hebrews 1:1 suggest that the Father spoke to the prophets and that Jesus did not speak to the prophets or us at any prior time?

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I fully believe that Jesus is the Son of God. I am confused with one question here though. Are we to worship Jesus Christ, when God states in the Old Testament to only worship Him?